Hi had a divorce five years ago and I decided not to ask for property but to be able to stay at the house with my children and passing me an alimony of 1400 monthly. He voluntarily continued paying the mortgage and bills in exchange of the alimony as a verbal agreement among us. He owns the house along with his brother. Due to a family matter with the wife of his brother I decided to leave the house and he ranted me access to another secondary house he had brought at the time as well. I now live in this house which is not the one stipulated in the divorce since then. He now wants to sell the original house with his brother and I was wondering if I am entitled to anything from his half of it?

If he purchased the house during the marriage, you were legally entitled to roughly half of his ownership when the divorce was finalized. If the house's property division was not specified in the divorce agreement, it might be possible to reopen it but it will probably cost money and time. Any verbal agreement is very likely going to evaporate in the process.
It is never a good idea to rely on verbal agreements when it comes to finances in a divorce. Exchanging money through a third party provides legal evidence of payment and benefits both of you.

Glenda: Alimony needs to be in writing. Verbal agreements are not enforceable when it comes to the law. I received alimony for several years. I needed an Attorney to get it and it went before a Judge for approval.